The LOGOS argument for God.

Off Topic Dicussion
First of all, I need to stress that LOGOS and logos are potentially the same thing, but potentially logos is a sub-set of LOGOS. Capitalization is important here.

So John's Gospel starts off with this:

"IN the begining was the LOGOS and the LOGOS was with GOD and the LOGOS was GOD. He made all things, and without HIM was not anything made that was made."

Is there a God?
The short answers is "Yes".

How can I prove John's claim correct logically?

It works like this:

1) LOGOS is defined as the rational principle which governs reality.

2) Logos (lower case) is the set of laws which govern an individual universe, but this set is a sub-set of LOGOS(upper case).

3) The LOGOS is eternal, but we know universes are past finite. Therefore:

4) Universes must be created by a prior eternal reality, because of "From nothing comes Nothing" (Rene Descartes).

Is LOGOS God with a mind? Or is LOGOS a mindless set of laws and concepts which randomly banged entre universes into existence?

5) We have a rational mind, which is governed by LOGOS and governed by Logos (lower case) in particular. Therefore Logos and LOGOS have the properties of a mind. If LOGOS did not have the properties of a mind we would not have the properties of a mind ourselves.

6) Since LOGOS is Almighty (creating and destroying? entire universes) and since LOGOS has the properties of a mind, then LOGOS has all the properties of an ALMIGHTY GOD.

7) Therefore, ALMIGHTY eternal GOD exists, and always has existed, because GOD is that eternal reality which is the first cause, the uncaused cause.
Is monotheism true or is it Polytheism. Do they actually disagree?

In the Bible, the God is pluralized several times, but Christianity tries to explain this away as a reference to the Holy Trinity.

I cannot prove the existence of a Trinity from first principles, but I believe I have proven two persons of the Godhead from first principles, but this is not necessarily Polytheism. One issue of minds is that it takes another mind to describe what the first mind is, so it may be necessary for God to exist as two or more persons in order to relate to himself and others what that personality is.

Polytheism.

The argument here is simple: The ALMIGHTY GOD can create other Gods and have them remain loyal if he wants to.

Twice in the Bible, God is referred to as "THE GOD OF GODS". This means the author conveyed that other Gods worshiped this one God. This wouldn't be possible unless other Gods actually existed.

"Thou shalt have no other Gods Before Me."

How do I resolve this?

Well the Angels and other spirit beings of Christianity, Judaism, and Islam all perform the roles of "Lesser Gods" from other religions: They deliver messages, they interpret dreams, and they punish sinners, and sometimes heal believers. They have all the powers of "Lesser Gods", but they are not called lesser gods, they are called Angels, Watchers, and "The Sons of God".

The God of Gods is the Father of the Gods.

Ironically, in John's Gospel, Jesus actually agreed with me. When he said that the "Heavenly Father" hears your prayers, a better translation of this is "Your Father Uranus", because "Heavenly" in this passage is actually mistranslated. In the original Greek text, John actually used the Greek spelling of the Proper name Uranus, the Father of the Greek Gods. "Your Father Uranus hears you pray."

This is in agreement with Solomon in the Old Testament, when he said, "The Heaven and The Heaven of Heavens cannot contain Thee (God)."

God is actually NOT your "Heavenly Father". God is outside of space and time, however he can communicate with us because he is also Transcendent. String Theory proves that the LOGOS transcends all possible Universes, even when their individual logos differs. So the God is not a part of the same manner of reality as us, even though he transcends all possible realities. It's easy to see that the LOGOS transcends all possible realities because the logos can describe all possible realities. This means logos is either a subset of LOGOS or LOGOS is one and the same as LOGOS.
I'm 37 years old, and I spent 30 years of my life as the most serious, Bible-believing Christian I know, and I never once had a dream or vision of Jesus talking to me.

One night a little over a year ago, I had a dream of Aphrodite (The Greek Goddess of Love) walking on the water and calling me by name. Moreover, I also had a waking vision of The God implying that he somehow exists as all the Olympians, or that they serve him somehow, I don't know how to put it into words, but I was shown a statue of Zeus in the middle with the other major Olympians surrounding him on either side. There are more than 12 Olympians, but there are 12 Olympians who are called "The Omnipotents" (Plural) in the Greek Tradition.

So, what am I left with? Some of the Greeks believed Uranus was born from Gaea, and some believe Gaea was born from Uranus...this actually agrees with both the Old and New Testament view of the creation and the origin of God. If they are uniplural, they may be the same Being in two different forms for all i know.

Anyway, Jesus never once personally spoke to me, but Aphrodite spoke to me at least once that I know it was Aphrodite.

How can I reconcile this to Christianity? The answer is I can't reconcile it totally, but I can say this:

Do you know there is no divine being named Aphrodite? No, you do not. IN the Book of Revelation, it is implied at least 400 Trillion beings worship the vision of God in Heaven. Among 400 Trillion worshipers, how many of those are named Aphrodite? Athena? Zeus? Diana? I don't know.

If Aphrodite is a "Watcher" then she has all the roles and authorities of The Olympians anyway, so whether we call her a Goddess or an Angel doesn't appear to matter. At any rate, she told me, "Uranus was the Father and Zeus is the Son, and that is close enough for now."

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